MathNumber theory

Modular arithmetic

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Suppose that $ax \equiv bx \pmod m$ , $m > 1$ . Is it necessarily true that $a \equiv b \pmod m$ ?

Select one option from the list

Yes, it is necessarily true

Only if

m

is prime

Only if

x

and

m

are relatively prime

No, for any

x

and

m

there is a counterexample

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